goose_716

Well as I was reading the Sleep Apnea field manual I read about the Obstructive and Central Sleep Apnea. I was diagnosed with complex sleep apnea which is a combo of the tow. Anyway I have found many studies on shift work disorder that cause obesity, well Obesity is directly linked to Obstructive sleep apnea. I also have 3 herniated disk in my back neck that I have been rated on. which falls under damage to the neck cervical spine nerve paths and have been diagnosed with sciatic nerve. Wonder if they can be linked back to my sleep apnea as a secondary service connection.

Has anyone tried to connect sleep apnea to being caused by working a rotating schedule. I worked 2 days 2 swings 2 mid for about 13 years out of my 20. Rest of my career was rotating schedule but it was not as xtreme.

Got paperwork back from DR and VA today. The DR put my range of motion in degrees as full movement which i can't understand i can't even touch my knees when bent over and if i take my right or left arm i can't twist to touch opposing hip. Of course he didn't use the Gionmeter or whatever the spelling for that equipment was. May have to contest that entire exam. He also rated the DP nerve which is incorrect from what I cand tell That nerve basically affects your leg from the knee down below. In my records it clearly states brom the buttocks down the leg. That should be sciatic nerve but i have searched all my records and it states radiculpathy not any type of specific nerve. DP of mild is 0% and Sciatic Nerve is 10% at mild. Due to the weird math that additional 10% of sicatic nerve wont do me any good. I have 20% +10+10+10+10+10 equally 70 but only 50 for the combined. Even if i get 10% for sciatic nerve it is a no go must have 20% for lower back also instead of 10%. Can't figure out why the dr listed all maximum degrees of movement. so what should I do about this. NOD it as in contesting the DR results due to him not using the proper equipment as stated in the offical exam from the VA. Thanks me getting 50 % was thru and directly related to the assistance on this website.

(Carlie) Yes i understand what you are the difference I just was looking for information that i could get hands on right now that will medically support it and include my DR's information. Thanks it does state in the 2002 VA training letter on IVDS information on this stating this is a secondary condition and the percentages should not be pyramided together so I was also going to use there own training letter on guidance on this. Thanks to all for help if there is any more suggestion I could use it.

Thanks, that is what i was thinking it would be but with the crazy math they use i thought it was a possiblity i could be wrong

(Thanks Test Vet) for the calculator but i keep getting error when i go to it. No worries I will try later (Berta) I'm able to work depending how bad it is for that day. If it is bad and i need to take medication such as Valium and various other muscle relaxers and pain pills then it is a no go for me I'm an air traffic controller and those meds and rapidly moving aircraft don't mix well. I guess i will look into the secondary condition of Sciatic nerve shouldn't be to hard to find. (Carlie) I will look into getting my DR to acknowledge it. Shouldn't be to hard to get this information it is all over the interanet. Heck hopefully i can find a research paper written by a VA Dr on this. I had one for this information getting all this changed to IVDS as opposed to strain. (Mags1023) Not sure if they are holding me to the incapacitating episodes or the degrees to be honest the letter I have is from Disabled American Veterans and not yet the official documentation from the VA so it doesn't say on there. The paperwork from the VA should tell me. I think the first step is to request the QTC exam results and see what DR stated for movement. If not accurate then i state in NOD why i feel this wasn't accurate due to him not following correct procedures. I can then submit numerous DR reports stating what my movement was of course not by using Gionmeter may have to get test again. Now reference the Siatic nerve they listed peroneal nerve which after some research i feel is incorrect it should have been sciatic nerve and it should not have been dogpiled within IVDS it should be seperate if any one has any suggestion on what to do I would greatly appreciate. Just looking for guidelines on what to look for and how to write it up. I do have another question If i file a NOD does it delay them paying me the 50% as opposed to the 40% that i currently have?

Originally I was given lumbar strain @10% Cervical strain at 0%. I had gotten much worse over the past 5 years and had found this website and followed many of your advice and had filed Jan 09, 09. I got my information back 16 Apr 09. I thought that was pretty good. Anyway they changed it to IVDS of the lumbar strain and the cervical strain. They also gave me 10% for the cervical IVDS and then gave me an additional 20% for left upper extremity radial nerve impairment. Which I also requested. So i was originally 40% now add this 30% it adds up to a total combine of 50% enen though my math says 70%. Would love to see the chart for this funny math. Does anyone know if it is available to look at or is it some super secret chart. Now the lumbar strain of 10% was changed to IVDS also but it remained at 10% which I don't understand, went to exam, and the DR never used Gionmeter so not sure how he could accurately measure the movement in degrees. Hoping to get the Dr's records on this exam. I never actually requested this condition to increase but I know that my movement in degrees should have increased it. (What to do about this?) I also requested sciatic nerve damage with lumbar IVDS. Results state Entitlement to lumbar spine degenerative disc disease and intervertebral disc syndrom with bilateral deep peroneal nerve involvement has been continued at 10%. Should I file a NOD on the sciatic nerve to the effect that my back has degerated to the point that i know have impinging on the nerve root in the lumbar region and request diagnostic code 8520 at mild for 10%. I have DR records showing this and from what i understand if you have IVDS you can get sciatic nerve from it. Or should i just now request the sciatic nerve of 10% seeings how they acknowledge the IVDS. It was a lot of research on my part DR recrds and getting supporting information on the intranet and typing up letters but well worth it. To all that gave me advice and have posted information on the forums on the best way to do this Thank YOU. Keep it facts and keep emotion out wonderful advice.

thanks for the help!!

Rental guy you state I should try and get it changed to code 5243 IVDS. I'm not entirly sure how to go about this to be honest. Short of sending in the MRI results and stating something to the effect that an MRi was never done while on active duty or at the pre sep and that it has degenerated into this. I know for a fact it is because i can feel it i know it is the same thing it is the same exact pain it just used to clear up shortly after taking muscle relaxers and such. Any help would be appreciated

Understand this is the tingling sensation going down my arm. I know it is from the IVDS in the cervical portion and it is mentin in my medical records but I'm not sure does this fall under 4.124a diseases of the peripheral nerves then either code 8510 thru 8512 depending which one is affected. It is basically my whole arm so I would assume 8511 under mild or possibly 8512 under mild

Thanks for the information. I appreciate the help I will try and get them to change it to code 5243 and then in addition add radiculopathy for an additional 10%. It is diagnoased in my records as radiculopathy but what is that code or how do I find it I think if I remember it falls under 4.124a not sure how to relate it to a specific condition it states that it travels from back down buttocks to the left leg anyhelp would be greatly appreciated.

During original exam I was given 10% for lumbar strain but It states that there is no evidence of ankylosis or intervertebral disc syndrome. Recently this condition has become much worse and an X-ray was completed along with an MRI. In the X-ray results it states that there is a mild L5-S1 facet sclerosis and Mild convex right curvature of the lumbar spine. From what I have learned the mild facet Sclerosis is a degenerative condition of the spine. From the MRI it states that on the L5-S1 level there is a Central and mildly leftward small disc protrusion at the L5-S1 level may be impinging on the left exiting nerve root and Mild dehydrative changes of the L4-5 and L5-S1 disc spaces. It also states left side leg radiculopathy 4-6 months, it still continues. This would indicate evidence of an intervertebral disc syndrome that includes a bulging disc and a herniated disc. It also states in records that unable to assess lumbar A/P joint mobility secondary to pain and muscle guarding. ROM lumbar ROM was within normal limits in all planes but lumbar extension excerbrated his central LBP and return from forward flexion caused some muscular LBP. Couple things that stand out for me other then it is Intervertebral Disc syndrome so I assume it needs to be reclassified but will still remain 10%. I have seen from Rentalguy that Radiculopathy is rated at 10%. Is this seperate or is it just grouped into this in general. Was hoping to find out trying to keep things focused and not just throw a bunch of things at them