usmc1114

I recently received 10% sc for my left knee, which brought my total sc to 30%. My claim was filed Jan 28, 2008 for back, knee and ankle. In July 2009 I was awarded 10% for back & 10% for ankle for a total of 20%, the knee was deferred back to the Detroit VA. I received the backpay for the 20% back to Feb 2008. A few weeks ago I received noticed that I was now 30% total because they rated my knee 10%. The letter indicated they have computed my rate while including my wife, but not my 2 children because they did not have the SSN's for the kids. As the letter suggested, I called the RO and gave them the SSN's for my kids. I have since received the backpay for my wife and I at 30%, but not the additional my children would add. I received a letter that they are processing my request, which I assume means the form adding my children. How long should it take to have the children added to my "claim" and the additional backpay deposited? I'm happy with how the claim process has gone thus far, just curious on a possible timeframe. Thanks! Tom

My initial claim was for back, left ankle, and left knee. July 8, 2009 I received a 10% rating for ankle and 10% for back with my left knee being deferred by to VA examiner. I thought it might be due to a typo in had found in the examiner's c&p report. Today, I received a letter stating I have been scheduled for a C&P exam for Aug 8, 2009. I research the examiner's name and found out that he is a Sports Medicine Specialist in the Detroit area. The condition that is documented in my c-file is chondromalacia patella and chronic knee pain throughout the last few years on my time in the Marine Corps. I have seen my private doctor on a few occasions for the condition and have had xrays and have received medications. All of this information and records were submitted with my initial claim. During my first C&P exam, the examiner discovered a tear in the meniscus of the left knee, but stated that it was his opinion that it was not related to my military service documented condition. Here are the questions that came to mind when I opened the letter today... Why are they scheduling me for another exam? Is it because of the typo that said the problem start in Dec 1981, when actually the c-file states Dec 1991? Do they want to check the tear in the meniscus the first examiner mentioned? What do I need to know from the experts on this website before I go to this 2nd exam? Thanks in advance for your help!

Do you think they deferred the decision on the left knee because of the typo in the doctor's C&P Exam? His report read "Regarding the left knee, once again during this same incident in 1988 he had a twisting type injury, and also with a reinjury in 1991 during physical therapy-type exercise. Essentially he has had chronic knee pain since approximately 1990 or 1991. On review of the veteran's C- file this is documented as a chronic left knee pain onset during December of 1981. He has been given the diagnosis of chronic chondromalacia patella without evidence of significant injury on the C-file. His current complaints including continuation of throbbing type sensations located to the anterior aspect of the knee, peripatellar region, with a more recent onset of posterior medial joint line pain, increasing with deep flexion, without history of new or recent injury. He does state that his knee feels like it gives out on him occasionally." In December of 1981 I would have been 12 years old. My Medical Records for the Marine Corps states "Left knee becomes painful and swollen since Dec 91". This is an obvious typo. My question is do I a) wait for the folks handling the deferred C&P or should I do an IRIS and submit this same information that I posted here or c) contact the VFW rep that helped with my claim or d) sit tight?

***** UPDATE **** I received notification on the decision for my initial claim. I received 10% for ankle, 10% for back, but the knee was deferred. Do you think they deferred the decision on the left knee because of the typo in the doctor's C&P Exam? His report read "Regarding the left knee, once again during this same incident in 1988 he had a twisting type injury, and also with a reinjury in 1991 during physical therapy-type exercise. Essentially he has had chronic knee pain since approximately 1990 or 1991. On review of the veteran's C- file this is documented as a chronic left knee pain onset during December of 1981. He has been given the diagnosis of chronic chondromalacia patella without evidence of significant injury on the C-file. His current complaints including continuation of throbbing type sensations located to the anterior aspect of the knee, peripatellar region, with a more recent onset of posterior medial joint line pain, increasing with deep flexion, without history of new or recent injury. He does state that his knee feels like it gives out on him occasionally." In December of 1981 I would have been 12 years old. My Medical Records for the Marine Corps states "Left knee becomes painful and swollen since Dec 91". This is an obvious typo. My question is do I a) wait for the folks handling the deferred C&P or should I do an IRIS and submit this same information or c) contact the VFW rep that help with my claim or d) sit tight?

I had one C&P Exam, maybe they want a more detailed for the knee. This claim was initially filed Jan 28, 2008 and that is what they used as the effective date of this decision. Will they use the same date once they make a decision on the knee? Thanks!

Hello! I just returned from a short vacation and in the pile of mail was my decision for the initial claim. The claim for my left ankle, left knee and lower back. I received 10% for ankle, 10% for back, but the knee was deferred. What exactly does that mean? Was I denied SC for the knee or is it going to be review by another dept? I'm new to this whole thing, so any and all help will be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

What steps should I take if I see things that are not true or that I did not say during the C&P exam? As an example, he writes "He still is able to participate in recreational activities". This is not true, I can no longer play softball or basketball like I used to. Also, the December of 1981 info is a typo. I was 11 or 12 yrs old at that time. The date should reflect 1991. Should I submit something now or do I have to wait for the decision and then appeal if the rating is "wrong"? One last question...This claim was initially filed Jan 2008, if I am denied and have to appeal and win on appeal, what date do they use the January 2008 or the date I file the appeal? Thank for everything...I greatly appreciate it.

You are 100% correct as to what the exam was for..left ankle, knee and back. Here is the full 3 pg report. This is for service connection fo"r~a~left knee, left ankle, and back condition. HISTORY: This is a 39-year-old Caucasian veteran enlisted in active military service 12/02/87 through 05/24/94. His primary complaint is low back pain. Regarding this, he states that during boot camp in 1988 while climbing in the mountains he sustained a twisting-type injury to his back and also to his left knee, bringing on throbbing type of pain. He did seek treatment for this. Review of the C-file indicates that in April of 1988 he had a diagnosis of low back strain and chronic lumbar pain, onset after standing, without documented injury. The veteran states that since this time the pain has become more constant and uncomfortable including muscle spasm to the upper lumbar spine. The patient has had formal workup without MRI in the past. He has not had any recommendations for surgical intervention. Radiation is not a significant complaint at this time. Regarding the left knee, once again during this same incident in 1988 he had a twisting type injury, and also with a reinjury in 1991 during physical therapy-type exercise. Essentially he has had chronic knee pain since approximately 1990 or 1991. On review of the veteran's C- file this is documented as a chronic left knee pain onset during December of 1981. He has been given the diagnosis of chronic chondromalacia patella without evidence of significant injury on the C-file. His current complaints including continuation of throbbing type sensations located to the anterior aspect of the knee, peripatellar region, with a more recent onset of posterior medial joint line pain, increasing with deep flexion, without history of new or recent injury. He does state that his knee feels like it gives out on him occasionally. Regarding the left ankle, approximately in 1988 he had the onset of pain. He states he has had multiple sprains throughout his military career, reinjuring it on several occasions. Also the pain is located over the posterior aspect of the ankle and near the Achilles tendon. Review of the C-file indicates a history of treatment for left ankle tendonitis and a chronic heel pain with Achilles tendonitis. These conditions have remained relatively stable with the exception of his low back pain. He denies any change in bowel or bladder habits or any history of infection involving a bone. He is right handed. He is currently employed through the VA in Saginaw in administration. He is on no formal work restrictions. He states he uses an occasional brace to his knee during some activities as well as to the ankle, but none worn on today's visit. His primary complaints are pain with some associated weakness, stiffness, swelling, instability, and locking. He denies heat, redness, or infection. He has previously undergone physical therapy for the left knee, without significant long-term improvement. He has not had injections. He states he gets four to six flareups per month rated as an 8 or a 9 on a scale of 1 to 10. They are associated with overuse and activity, primarily involving the low back and occasionally the left knee, with some alleviation by rest, ice, and Motrin. He also takes an occasional muscle relaxant for his back pain. He denies any side effects. He has not had any orthopedic surgeries. He denies any history of fracture, dislocation, or recurrent subluxations. He states he does have some mild difficulty with strenuous activities involving the left knee and low back, however, not much difficulty walking, driving, grooming, toileting, eating, or shopping. He still is able to participate in recreational activities. He denies any incapacitating episodes over the last 12 months. He denies any orthopedic implants or prosthetic devices. PHYSICAL EXAMINATION: Physical examination reveals a 39- year-old Caucasian male who appears his stated age. He is cooperative with the examination today. Focused examination of the low back reveals a mild amount of increased tone over the thoracolumbar junction on the left. There are no midline defects or skin markings noted. Sagittal and coronal alignment throughout the lumbar spine is maintained. Flexion is 0 to 80 degrees, extension 0 to 30 degrees, side bending to the right and left 0 to 45 degrees respectively, and rotating to the right and left is 0 to 45 degrees respectively, which is normal. Straight leg raise and Lasegue test are negative. Deep tendon reflexes are brisk +3/4 and equal bilaterally with positive Hoffmann's bilaterally. There are no lateralizing signs. Three-beat clonus is noted bilaterally. Motor and sensory examination reveals +5/5 motor and sensation to the bilateral lower and upper extremities. Heel-toe rise and gait are non-antalgic. Focused examination of the left knee reveals the skin to be intact. There is no effusion present. There is mild tenderness to palpation in the peripatellar region without significant crepitus. There is mild posterior medial joint line tenderness with positive McMurray's test. ACL and PCL show grade 1 laxity bilaterally. Collateral ligaments are stable to varus and valgus stress. There is no ankylosis and no significant pain with passive range of motion. Regarding the left ankle, the skin is intact. There is no effusion present. There is no malleolar pain. There is no instability on anterior or posterior drawer. Inversion and eversion along with dorsiflexion and plantar flexion show normal range of motion with the exception of 10-degree loss of dorsiflexion due to tight Achilles tendon. There is tenderness to palpation over the insertion point of the Achilles tendon and over the posterior course of the posterior tibial tendon. Single leg toe rise is tender on the left. Range of motion measured dorsiflexion 0 to 10 degrees, plantar flexion 0 to 45 degrees, inversion 0 to 30 degrees, and eversion 0 to 20 degrees, which is normal. There is no evidence of tendon subluxation. There are no abnormal callosities noted. Repetitive motion testing per DeLuca criteria revealed no additional limitations of motion due to pain, fatigue, weakness, or lack of endurance tested three times. IMAGING: Three-view left ankle done on today's date show mild osteophyte formation consistent with mild degenerative changes of the tibiotalar joint. No other osseus abnormalities are identified. Three-view of the left knee done on today's date show no significant osseus abnormalities. There is a 0-degree valgus attitude to the left knee. Three-view of the lumbosacral spine show a mild right-sided thoracolumbar curvature with normal lumbar lordosis. No significant degenerative changes are noted throughout the lumbosacral spine. There is facet arthrosis noted at the L4- L5 level. IMPRESSION: 1. Chronic low back strain with early age-related facet arthrosis. 2. Chondromalacia patella left knee. 3. Left knee medial meniscus tear. 4. Chronic Achilles tendonitis left ankle and posterior tibial tendon tendonitis. MEDICAL OPINION: Based on the history obtained today by the veteran himself along with review of the veteran's C-file and objective physical and radiographic evidence reviewed on today's date, it is my opinion that the veteran's current low back condition and left knee condition and left ankle condition have documented onset while enlisted in active military service as described above. These are stable in nature with the exception of low back pain, which subjectively has been becoming more frequent with mild worsening. Also noted on radiographic imaging are age- related changes to the lumbar spine and possible underlying lumbar scoliosis. Therefore, it is my opinion that the veteran's current low back, left knee, and left ankle conditions are at least as likely as not due to injury sustained while in active military service. The exception of this is suspected medial meniscus tear on the left knee, which is different from military service- documented left knee pain, therefore it is felt to be a new condition arising after separation from military service.

AS PER REQUESTED BY JOHN999, I AM POSTING THE SUMMARY OF MY C&P EXAM THAT I RECEVIED AT THE VAMC DETROIT. ANY & ALL COMMENTS ARE WELCOME. THANKS EVERYONE! formation consistent with mild degenerative changes of the tibiotalar joint. No other osseus abnormalities are identified. Three-view of the left knee done on today's date show no significant osseus abnormalities. There is a 0-degree valgus attitude to the left knee. Three-view of the lumbosacral spine show a mild right-sided thoracolumbar curvature with normal lumbar lordosis. No significant degenerative changes are noted throughout the lumbosacral spine. There is facet arthrosis noted at the L4- L5 level. IMPRESSION: 1. Chronic low back strain with early age-related facet arthrosis. 2. Chondromalacia patella left knee. 3. Left knee medial meniscus tear. 4. Chronic Achilles tendonitis left ankle and posterior tibial tendon tendonitis. MEDICAL OPINION: Based on the history obtained today by the veteran himself along with review of the veteran's C-file and objective physical and radiographic evidence reviewed on today's date, it is my opinion that the veteran's current low back condition and left knee condition and left ankle condition have documented onset while enlisted in active military service as described above. These are stable in nature with the exception of low back pain, which subjectively has been becoming more frequent with mild worsening. Also noted on radiographic imaging are age- related changes to the lumbar spine and possible underlying lumbar scoliosis. Therefore, it is my opinion that the veteran's current low back, left knee, and left ankle conditions are at least as likely as not due to injury sustained while in active military service. The exception of this is suspected medial meniscus tear on the left knee, which is different from military service- documented left knee pain, therefore it is felt to be a new condition arising after separation from military service.

HERE IS THE INFO THAT I GOT OFF THE LAST PAGE OF MY C&P EXAM REPORT.... formation consistent with mild degenerative changes of the tibiotalar joint. No other osseus abnormalities are identified. Three-view of the left knee done on today's date show no significant osseus abnormalities. There is a 0-degree valgus attitude to the left knee. Three-view of the lumbosacral spine show a mild right-sided thoracolumbar curvature with normal lumbar lordosis. No significant degenerative changes are noted throughout the lumbosacral spine. There is facet arthrosis noted at the L4- L5 level. IMPRESSION: 1. Chronic low back strain with early age-related facet arthrosis. 2. Chondromalacia patella left knee. 3. Left knee medial meniscus tear. 4. Chronic Achilles tendonitis left ankle and posterior tibial tendon tendonitis. MEDICAL OPINION: Based on the history obtained today by the veteran himself along with review of the veteran's C-file and objective physical and radiographic evidence reviewed on today's date, it is my opinion that the veteran's current low back condition and left knee condition and left ankle condition have documented onset while enlisted in active military service as described above. These are stable in nature with the exception of low back pain, which subjectively has been becoming more frequent with mild worsening. Also noted on radiographic imaging are age- related changes to the lumbar spine and possible underlying lumbar scoliosis. Therefore, it is my opinion that the veteran's current low back, left knee, and left ankle conditions are at least as likely as not due to injury sustained while in active military service. The exception of this is suspected medial meniscus tear on the left knee, which is different from military service- documented left knee pain, therefore it is felt to be a new condition arising after separation from military service.

Thank you all for the replies and great information. I did receive a copy of my exam and will paste a copy of final part of the report (impression, medical opinion, etc). I did use a service officer, but he was fired about a year ago. I will touch base with a couple that I know at the VA and see what they can find out for me. formation consistent with mild degenerative changes of the tibiotalar joint. No other osseus abnormalities are identified. Three-view of the left knee done on today's date show no significant osseus abnormalities. There is a 0-degree valgus attitude to the left knee. Three-view of the lumbosacral spine show a mild right-sided thoracolumbar curvature with normal lumbar lordosis. No significant degenerative changes are noted throughout the lumbosacral spine. There is facet arthrosis noted at the L4- L5 level. IMPRESSION: 1. Chronic low back strain with early age-related facet arthrosis. 2. Chondromalacia patella left knee. 3. Left knee medial meniscus tear. 4. Chronic Achilles tendonitis left ankle and posterior tibial tendon tendonitis. MEDICAL OPINION: Based on the history obtained today by the veteran himself along with review of the veteran's C-file and objective physical and radiographic evidence reviewed on today's date, it is my opinion that the veteran's current low back condition and left knee condition and left ankle condition have documented onset while enlisted in active military service as described above. These are stable in nature with the exception of low back pain, which subjectively has been becoming more frequent with mild worsening. Also noted on radiographic imaging are age- related changes to the lumbar spine and possible underlying lumbar scoliosis. Therefore, it is my opinion that the veteran's current low back, left knee, and left ankle conditions are at least as likely as not due to injury sustained while in active military service. The exception of this is suspected medial meniscus tear on the left knee, which is different from military service- documented left knee pain, therefore it is felt to be a new condition arising after separation from military service.

I really wish I would have found this site prior to going for my C&P exam. Anyway, I have submitted 2 IRIS in the past few months and these are the two responses I have received. I am correct in that it is my understanding that my file is sitting in a pile waiting for a rater to review it? Any help in terms of the next step and about how long it could take from until I receive a decision would be greatly appreciated. My claim is being processed through the Detroit, MI location. Thanks! 1. Your claim was sent to the rating board on May 20, 2009. The results of your examinations were recorded on your claim and your claim was sent to the rating board. 2. We show that as of June 8, 2009 your claim is ready for a decision. We are unable to give you a timeline when the rater will review your file as we do not know their caseload.