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Showing results for tags '(smc(s-1)'.
Found 1 result
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Is a temporary convalescence leave paid at the 100% rate considered the same as SMC(s-1), which according to what I'm looking at was awarded for 2.5 months and then discontinued? There's a story with this, but I think that's the root question. I thought convalescence at temporary 100% and SMC (s) were separate animals but maybe I'm wrong. At the time of convalescence for S/C hernia repair surgery, my husband was rated at 90% and was paid at the 100% rate for 30 days of convalescence and nothing additional above that for SMC (s). And to make things more interesting, the RO supposedly made this award in a rating decision dated October 6, 2014. My husband was rated 30% on that date for IHD presumptive to AO, but by that time was already 100% P&T as a result of subsequent appeals and retroactive awards, and there is no mention of SMC(s-1) anywhere in the October 2014 rating decision. This was all found under the "Additional Benefits" section of Ebenefits. According to that, he received 2.5 months of SMC(s-1) 5/14/04 -8/1/04. He was only on convalescence leave from his job at the time under FMLA for 30 days, not 2 1/2 months. I have everything on file and there's no mention of SMC(s-1) in either 2004 or 2014 from the RO. Am I wrong about temporary 100% for convalescence and SMC(s-1) being two different things? Is this a an error merely of record with no real consequence, or are we leaving money on the table that belongs to my husband? That's what I'm trying to figure out, thanks!
