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blackbird
Please read this IMO and let me know what you think,
Thanks, Blackbird
To Whom it May Concern:
Mr.XXXXXXXXX is now 51 yrs old. I have been seeing him since 1996. At that time, he came to me with a foraminal disc at L4-L5, had a foraminal diskectomy done, and had continued degeneration of the 4-5 disc and subsequently underwent a 4-5 fusion. Relevant to this, I have reviewed XXXXX's SMR'S. He notes that when on deployment in Egypt from Oct to Nov 95 he was pulling on a heavy parts box from a stack of boxes and had a sharp pain in his back radiating down his left leg into his left foot. This is the exact distribution of discomfort for which I operated on him subsequently in 1996. It is more than likely the pathology for which I operated on he incurred in the lifting incident when he was deployed in Egypt. Theresore, it is more than likely related to his military service. He has intractable leg pain as a result of injury to the dorsal root ganglia and it was the ultimate cause of him requiring a fusion at L4-L5. He has had subsequent disc herniations most recently at L2-L3 but he has also had disc disease in the cervical spine rrequiring 5 additional fusions.
There is no question in my mind that there is a direct causal relationship between the injury sustained in Egypt and the necessity he had for an L4-L5 diskectomy and subsequent L4-L5 fusion.
Please address any questions to me, Dr. XXXXXXXXX
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