'There is no recent evidence of any left ankle symptoms or treatment in your VMAC records. You reported to a va examination, you noted stiffness and pain. You also noted not having any current treatment. Upon examination, the examiner noted decreased range of motion of plantar flexion at 20 degrees and dorsiflexion at 5 degrees. However, the examiner went on to say that the decreased range of motion was exaggerated, as the examiner noted that you were able to walk on heals and toes at examination. The examiner did not note any functional impairment with repetitive motion or flare ups. No objective pain was shown on examination. No arthritis was noted. The examiner noted that your left ankle condition has resolved, and that a tiny avulsion fracture of unclear significance was noted in your medical history. The examiner stated that your range of motion deficit and weakness documented is not considered reliable as there is no record of an ankle condition for several years, no swelling or deformity was noted on exam, and weakness was inconsistent. Therefore we cannot use your decreased range of motion noted above for evaluation, and there is no objective evidence of pain noted on examination."
So I have three questions.
1. Should I now go to the VA to seek medical documentation to put in my VA file, I have already initiated a NOD. Or does that not look good on my part. My VSO said it doesn't just wanting to get other opinions?
2. Can I challenge the narrative as it shows and extreme amount of biases from the "exaggerate", i didn't seek treatment for it because i was told there is not much that can be done. however the VA has me on meloxicam.
3. Should i not even bother with the appeal and just leave it at 0 and not poke the "bear" anymore than needed, as it seems to have bitten me this time.
Thanks for all your help brothers and sisters