oldvet

You need to get a neurologist to look at you as you have nerve damage. This damage is related to your spinal injury of DJD and it will be rated accordingly in addition to what you have now. For example your sciatic nerve is affected.

(Hope I've posted this in the right place this time) I am 67 years old and was just awarded 100% schedular. When I called the 1800# to ask about P&T, I was told that I had a future exam schedule for the year 2014. I will be 72 years old then. Is this normal? I thought that after 55 they didn't do it unless there was cause. Would appreciate thoughts on this. Thanks, oldvet

I am 67 years old and was just awarded 100% schedular. When I called the 1800# to ask about P&T, I was told that I had a future exam schedule for the year 2014. I will be 72 years old then. Is this normal? I thought that after 55 they didn't do it unless there was cause. Would appreciate thoughts on this. Thanks, oldvet

Thanks, that helps. Does anyone know when and why they use "radicular groups" to rate? oldvet

My question is this: If approved for service connection how is this rated? Do they use " radicular groups" under peripheral nerves or the individual median and ulnar nerve for coming up with a percentage? Does anyone know exactly what the process is on this? I would appreciate any expert articulation on the subject. Thanks, oldvet

Thank you very much rentalguy1, I really appreciate you assistance on this. oldvet

rentalguy1 I think I satnd corrected on my last comment. I have had awful heel pain and an xray taken recently shows "A small plantar and dorsal calcaneal spurs are noted at the left foot." If this is what I think it is i.e. faciitis then how should I handle it? The VA has this report so it is not new evidence, maybe just overlooked. Thanks, oldvet

Thanks. No, I don't have it but will keep a watch on things. Thanks again. oldvet

One more question though Does the fact that only the 1st metatarsal joint has arthritis change anything? The code says two or more joints. oldvet

Thanks rentaguy1 ! Appreciate the help! oldvet

Why would VA give me a zero percentage and say that I was rated under 5284 Foot injuries, other? The examiner showed traumatic arthritis of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The code on the worksheet shows 5299-5284. Am I missing something ? Thanks, oldvet

How is VA supposed to rate this? As arthritic joints or a foot injury? I have been cited as having a "foot injury" under 5284. and therefore rated as a 0 because it does not meet the moderate condition. If the Xray shows arthritis of the metatarsal joints shouldn't that be rated as such? Thanks, oldvet

Berta, During the same C&P I was given two sets of data ROM in degree, and ROM in degree that pain occurs. For example: shoulder flexion was 110 for ROM in defree and 50 for degree that pain occurs. oldvet

I have a question concerning DeLuca v. Brown for anyone that knows It mandated that pain be considered in disability evaluations. 38CFR 4.40 states that pain will be considered when determining functional disability. Consequently the VA changed the examination sheets to reflect that for spinal exams at least three repetitions of the joint's or spine's range of motion (ROM) will be made noting the impact of pain. 38 CFR 4.71a states that the rating should be "With or without symptoms such as pain ". My question is this. Does the rater take the ROM that was done after the repetitions for rating purposes thus possibly giving a higher evaluation? For example: 60 degrees before repetitions and 30 degrees after repetitions. Or do they use the higher of the two? Thanks and Happy New Year, oldvet

Thanks rentalguy1. I am planning on doing what you said about an independent medical opinion. Was just wondering if anyone out there may have some experience with a similar problem. Thanks for the recommendation. oldvet