Jump to content
VA Disability Community via Hadit.com

Ask Your VA   Claims Questions | Read Current Posts 
Read Disability Claims Articles
 Search | View All Forums | Donate | Blogs | New Users | Rules 

  • homepage-banner-2024-2.png

  • donate-be-a-hero.png

  • 0

Lumbar Pain And Bilateral Ankle Pain

Rate this question


121212

Question

I have a question about a rating on my back. On the 4 august 2006 I was increased to 20% on my lumbar area of my back, for 10% as it says your evaluation was assigned based on previous VA examination showing painful motion of the lumbar spine. Your 20% evaluation is assigned on evidence showing spasms resulting in antalgic gait. On 7 march 2007 the evaluation of degenerative disc disease, lumbar spine, which is currently 20% disabling is continued based on VA exam report that forward flexion was limited by pain to 40 degrees.

The question is the 20% for forward flexion to 40 degrees the same as the 20% for 20% for painful motion and the spasms resulting in antalgic gate?

The other question is how does the bilateral factor work when you have a rating on your right and left ankle?

THANK KEN

Link to comment
Share on other sites

  • Answers 2
  • Created
  • Last Reply

Top Posters For This Question

Popular Days

Top Posters For This Question

2 answers to this question

Recommended Posts

  • HadIt.com Elder

121212,

If the August, 2006, rating assigned a 20% rating based on "showing painful motion of the lumbar spine...Your 20% evaluation is assigned on evidence showing spasms resulting in antalgic gait," the RVSR may have been really liberal in assigning this evaluation if the Range of motion wasn't between between 30 and 60 degrees. Look to see if there is any forward flexion measurements noted in the rating decision or the C&P exam.

As far as the bi-lateral factor is concerned, the VA will combine the two ratings using the Combined Ratings Table and then add 10% of that value to arrive at a single rating for the two. Then that single rating is then combined with any other ratings one might have in the order of severity. For example, let's say you are rated 10% for each ankle and also have a 40% for your lumbar spine. The two 10%'s combine to 19%, then 10% of 19 is 1.9%, so 19% + 1.9 % = 20.9% rounded to 21%. Then the 40% for the back is combined with the 21%; 40% + 21% = 52%, rounded down to 50%. So 50% would be your rating in this case.

Vike 17

Link to comment
Share on other sites

121212,

If the August, 2006, rating assigned a 20% rating based on "showing painful motion of the lumbar spine...Your 20% evaluation is assigned on evidence showing spasms resulting in antalgic gait," the RVSR may have been really liberal in assigning this evaluation if the Range of motion wasn't between between 30 and 60 degrees. Look to see if there is any forward flexion measurements noted in the rating decision or the C&P exam.

As far as the bi-lateral factor is concerned, the VA will combine the two ratings using the Combined Ratings Table and then add 10% of that value to arrive at a single rating for the two. Then that single rating is then combined with any other ratings one might have in the order of severity. For example, let's say you are rated 10% for each ankle and also have a 40% for your lumbar spine. The two 10%'s combine to 19%, then 10% of 19 is 1.9%, so 19% + 1.9 % = 20.9% rounded to 21%. Then the 40% for the back is combined with the 21%; 40% + 21% = 52%, rounded down to 50%. So 50% would be your rating in this case.

Vike 17

The first C&P was 10% for painful range of motion and a total of 20 for muscle spasms resulting in antalgic gate. the second C&P was 20% for forward flexion limited by pain to 40 degrees.

THANKS KEN

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest
This topic is now closed to further replies.
×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

Guidelines and Terms of Use