My father applied for an increase in DMII for in March/2007.
He had a C&P exam in May/2007.
He received a Rating Decision in November/2007.
In the "Reasons For Decision Section" I closely read the reasons.
Under #3 "Evaluation of Neuropathy, Left lower extremity currently evaluated at 10 percent disabling" I found this sentence among the reasoning:
"You were noted to have hammer toes and claw toes; you were unable to bend or flex the toes. The doctor attributed this finding as being likely due to the neuropathy."
Under #4 "Evaluation of Neuropathy, Right lower extremity currently evaluated at 10 percent disabling" is states:
"Please see neuropathy, left lower extremity for the discussion and examination findings."
They denied an increase in severity for the neuropathy.
My questions are :
Should this be good enough to be considered an official diagnosis of Hammer Toes and Claw Toes / Claw Foot?
Is the examiners statement as to it being likely due to his SC neuropathy goos enough for a SC nexus?
Since the right is exactly the same as the left would this be bilatteral?
Should this have been automatically adjudicated as a claim "inferred or implied" as it was a VA examiner that diagnosed it?
Question
BigDog
My father applied for an increase in DMII for in March/2007.
He had a C&P exam in May/2007.
He received a Rating Decision in November/2007.
In the "Reasons For Decision Section" I closely read the reasons.
Under #3 "Evaluation of Neuropathy, Left lower extremity currently evaluated at 10 percent disabling" I found this sentence among the reasoning:
"You were noted to have hammer toes and claw toes; you were unable to bend or flex the toes. The doctor attributed this finding as being likely due to the neuropathy."
Under #4 "Evaluation of Neuropathy, Right lower extremity currently evaluated at 10 percent disabling" is states:
"Please see neuropathy, left lower extremity for the discussion and examination findings."
They denied an increase in severity for the neuropathy.
My questions are :
Should this be good enough to be considered an official diagnosis of Hammer Toes and Claw Toes / Claw Foot?
Is the examiners statement as to it being likely due to his SC neuropathy goos enough for a SC nexus?
Since the right is exactly the same as the left would this be bilatteral?
Should this have been automatically adjudicated as a claim "inferred or implied" as it was a VA examiner that diagnosed it?
Thanks in advance for reading and or replying!
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