butlerg Posted March 24, 2015 Share Posted March 24, 2015 Question I'd really like an answer too... Ventral hernia rated at 20% for 15 years Raised to 40% for 1 year Then Reduced to 0 - Inquiring minds want to know going from 40 to 20 obviously is not protected it existed for only 1 year at 40% However, would the part of going below 20% be protected because it existed for 15 years or the whole thing is unprotected because of the one year old increase???? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
0 HadIt.com Elder JR Reihs Posted March 26, 2015 HadIt.com Elder Share Posted March 26, 2015 Well, it went fron 40 to 0%..........how and why did that happen , and when did the 20% hit 15? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
0 butlerg Posted March 26, 2015 Author Share Posted March 26, 2015 It was reduced with reasons and bases of the symptoms not longer warranted compensation... It was mistakenly examined during a C&P that was supposed to check for adhesions secondary to the ventral henria. Of course for a reduction the VA has to prove improvement, it does not matter what my symptoms are. I don't have to prove I deserve the rating they have to prove I don't. I've been rethinking and it appears that 38 C.F.R. § 3.344 (a) and (b) do apply because the disability went from 20 to 40 there by proving it was not likely to improve... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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butlerg
Question I'd really like an answer too...
Ventral hernia rated at 20% for 15 years
Raised to 40% for 1 year Then
Reduced to 0 - Inquiring minds want to know
going from 40 to 20 obviously is not protected it existed for only 1 year at 40%
However, would the part of going below 20% be protected because it existed for 15 years or the whole thing is unprotected because of the one year old increase????
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