Hi all and thanks so much fro being here for us. Spent my time in the USAF 67-68 at the Dong Ha Marine Combat Base 6 miles from the DMZ.
Just received a copy of my C&P for PTSD from Mar '09. It states - Axis 1: PTSD - Axis 5: GAF 55. On pg. 15 it asks: IS THERE TOTAL OCCUPATIONAL AND SOCIAL IMPAIRMENT DUE TO MENTAL DISORDER SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS ? ANS: yes.
Then the narrative below says:
"Veteran becomes hypervigilant and experiences flashbacks in the presence of people and is afraid of going out from fear of getting these symptoms he does not go out to socialise with people, stays home, gave up leisure activities, isolates himself and stays home mostly. He cannot experience loving feelings, cannot feel close to people, has been living alone for many years and isolates himself from others. His occupational and psychosocial status are impaired by his PTSD symptoms."
Also, any info in that opinion came from the VA Social Worker Counselor and the VA Psychiatrist that I have been seeing. I know this because the C&P exam lasted 10 minutes and the DR. really didn't want to hear anything saying " I have all the info I need here already." He was pointing to my C-File.
After talking with others, they tell me language was similar (Total Impairment) in the C&P Report they received and yet they got ratings as low as 30%.
My question is: Is it common to use that language (total impairment) and still come out with a lower rating than a vet deserves? And how can a Rater's opinion trump a Psychiatrist's opinion who has been seeing you for months, and if it does isn't it obvious that a higher authority will overrule the rater on appeal?
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Tiki
Hi all and thanks so much fro being here for us. Spent my time in the USAF 67-68 at the Dong Ha Marine Combat Base 6 miles from the DMZ.
Just received a copy of my C&P for PTSD from Mar '09. It states - Axis 1: PTSD - Axis 5: GAF 55. On pg. 15 it asks: IS THERE TOTAL OCCUPATIONAL AND SOCIAL IMPAIRMENT DUE TO MENTAL DISORDER SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS ? ANS: yes.
Then the narrative below says:
"Veteran becomes hypervigilant and experiences flashbacks in the presence of people and is afraid of going out from fear of getting these symptoms he does not go out to socialise with people, stays home, gave up leisure activities, isolates himself and stays home mostly. He cannot experience loving feelings, cannot feel close to people, has been living alone for many years and isolates himself from others. His occupational and psychosocial status are impaired by his PTSD symptoms."
Also, any info in that opinion came from the VA Social Worker Counselor and the VA Psychiatrist that I have been seeing. I know this because the C&P exam lasted 10 minutes and the DR. really didn't want to hear anything saying " I have all the info I need here already." He was pointing to my C-File.
After talking with others, they tell me language was similar (Total Impairment) in the C&P Report they received and yet they got ratings as low as 30%.
My question is: Is it common to use that language (total impairment) and still come out with a lower rating than a vet deserves? And how can a Rater's opinion trump a Psychiatrist's opinion who has been seeing you for months, and if it does isn't it obvious that a higher authority will overrule the rater on appeal?
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