I found this statement several times in my exam, mostly referring to Pain or difficulties doing something "The examination neither supports nor contradicts the Veteran's statements describing functional loss during flare-ups." Does the benefit of the doubt go to the veteran since the bar is set to 51% whether or not its true. Also, As with repetitive use of an injury just because the doctor wasn there to witness the pain does the rater assume it never happens?
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lcplcookba1
I found this statement several times in my exam, mostly referring to Pain or difficulties doing something "The examination neither supports nor contradicts the Veteran's statements describing functional loss during flare-ups." Does the benefit of the doubt go to the veteran since the bar is set to 51% whether or not its true. Also, As with repetitive use of an injury just because the doctor wasn there to witness the pain does the rater assume it never happens?
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lcplcookba1
I found this statement several times in my exam, mostly referring to Pain or difficulties doing something "The examination neither supports nor contradicts the Veteran's statements describing function
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