Is a temporary convalescence leave paid at the 100% rate considered the same as SMC(s-1), which according to what I'm looking at was awarded for 2.5 months and then discontinued? There's a story with this, but I think that's the root question. I thought convalescence at temporary 100% and SMC (s) were separate animals but maybe I'm wrong.
At the time of convalescence for S/C hernia repair surgery, my husband was rated at 90% and was paid at the 100% rate for 30 days of convalescence and nothing additional above that for SMC (s). And to make things more interesting, the RO supposedly made this award in a rating decision dated October 6, 2014. My husband was rated 30% on that date for IHD presumptive to AO, but by that time was already 100% P&T as a result of subsequent appeals and retroactive awards, and there is no mention of SMC(s-1) anywhere in the October 2014 rating decision.
This was all found under the "Additional Benefits" section of Ebenefits. According to that, he received 2.5 months of SMC(s-1) 5/14/04 -8/1/04. He was only on convalescence leave from his job at the time under FMLA for 30 days, not 2 1/2 months. I have everything on file and there's no mention of SMC(s-1) in either 2004 or 2014 from the RO.
Am I wrong about temporary 100% for convalescence and SMC(s-1) being two different things? Is this a an error merely of record with no real consequence, or are we leaving money on the table that belongs to my husband? That's what I'm trying to figure out, thanks!
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lotzaspotz
Is a temporary convalescence leave paid at the 100% rate considered the same as SMC(s-1), which according to what I'm looking at was awarded for 2.5 months and then discontinued? There's a story with this, but I think that's the root question. I thought convalescence at temporary 100% and SMC (s) were separate animals but maybe I'm wrong.
At the time of convalescence for S/C hernia repair surgery, my husband was rated at 90% and was paid at the 100% rate for 30 days of convalescence and nothing additional above that for SMC (s). And to make things more interesting, the RO supposedly made this award in a rating decision dated October 6, 2014. My husband was rated 30% on that date for IHD presumptive to AO, but by that time was already 100% P&T as a result of subsequent appeals and retroactive awards, and there is no mention of SMC(s-1) anywhere in the October 2014 rating decision.
This was all found under the "Additional Benefits" section of Ebenefits. According to that, he received 2.5 months of SMC(s-1) 5/14/04 -8/1/04. He was only on convalescence leave from his job at the time under FMLA for 30 days, not 2 1/2 months. I have everything on file and there's no mention of SMC(s-1) in either 2004 or 2014 from the RO.
Am I wrong about temporary 100% for convalescence and SMC(s-1) being two different things? Is this a an error merely of record with no real consequence, or are we leaving money on the table that belongs to my husband? That's what I'm trying to figure out, thanks!
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lotzaspotz 2 posts
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lotzaspotz
Berta, I think I'll try to go through IRIS on this for starters. This is so weird because we have an appeal pending at the BVA for SMC (s) based on statutory eligibility effective October 2007. We h
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